[WileECoyote06]

Great posts Ken, I've been arguing some of these same points for years. It's refreshing see your articulate response to the often peculiar inerpretation of religion. 

“You can safely assume that you’ve created God in your own image when it turns out that God hates all the same people you do.” - Bird by Bird, Anne Lemotte.

I wonder if they were serving shrimp cocktail and barbecue at the victory celebration.

[Cats4ever]

First the word "homosexual" was not coined until 1869 by Karl-Maria kertbeny. So how it happens to be included in a TRUE reading of a particular biblical passage should make you ponder how accurate the interpretation actually is.  So is man changing the words of the Blble to spread hate?

In Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 --both verses refer to heterosexuals who participated in fertility rituals in order to guarantee good crops and healthy flocks, not homosexuals, and there is absolutely no mention of sexual orientation or homosexuality. Also the word, abominations was used for anything that was considered to be religiously unclean or dealing with any type of idol worship.

The Hebrew word "toevah" was used in Leviticu 18;22 and Levitucus 20:13.  Toevah has been translated in our bibles as "abominiation" or "detestable. The "toevah" was used throughout the Old Tesstment for activity involving ethnic contamination and religious idolatry.  Toevah refers to things that were ritually unclean-like eating pork.  It is significant that another Hebrew word "zimah" also tranlated "abomination" which means intrinsic evil or evil by it very nature, was not used in Leviticus 18:22 or Leviticus 20:13. it is also significant that female homosexual relationships are not mentioned in the old testament.  THAT IS BECAUSE THEY ARE NOT TALKING ABOUT SEXUAL ORIENTATION, THEY ARE TALKING ABOUT IDOLTROUS PRACTICES.

Thanks Ken. Most people need to understand some of the translation errors in the Bible. As I always stated that people need to view the various laws in the OT from a worship point of view. If you look at it that way, you can understand why the Jews were call God's chosen people because he set them aside to be the role model for the rest of the area and point them to the one true God. As the bible tells us that God is a jealous God who will have no other God before him, and the wages of sin is death which is why the people in the OT were put to death for breaking certain laws pertaining to certain forms of worship. Most people have been trying for years to understand why certain foods God considered unclean, but if you look at those food from a worship standpoint, you will find that the pig is still used by devil worshipers, and shellfish we believe help with our sex life which was part of those people worship  

[Ken]

Also people need to understand that the Bible was from Greek translations--the Greek alphabet does not have the letter a or f--thus the meaning of certain words are quite different when they are translated into English.

[Nomenclature]

First the word "homosexual" was not coined until 1869 by Karl-Maria kertbeny. So how it happens to be included in a TRUE reading of a particular biblical passage should make you ponder how accurate the interpretation actually is.  So is man changing the words of the Blble to spread hate?

In Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 --both verses refer to heterosexuals who participated in fertility rituals in order to guarantee good crops and healthy flocks, not homosexuals, and there is absolutely no mention of sexual orientation or homosexuality. Also the word, abominations was used for anything that was considered to be religiously unclean or dealing with any type of idol worship.

The Hebrew word "toevah" was used in Leviticu 18;22 and Levitucus 20:13.  Toevah has been translated in our bibles as "abominiation" or "detestable. The "toevah" was used throughout the Old Tesstment for activity involving ethnic contamination and religious idolatry.  Toevah refers to things that were ritually unclean-like eating pork.  It is significant that another Hebrew word "zimah" also tranlated "abomination" which means intrinsic evil or evil by it very nature, was not used in Leviticus 18:22 or Leviticus 20:13. it is also significant that female homosexual relationships are not mentioned in the old testament.  THAT IS BECAUSE THEY ARE NOT TALKING ABOUT SEXUAL ORIENTATION, THEY ARE TALKING ABOUT IDOLTROUS PRACTICES.

1 Cor 6:9-10
9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate , nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.

The text there is the term arsenokoites which means sodomites. This was the desire of the men of Sodom toward the angels who came to liberate Lot. Zimah is not used anywhere in Scripture, so its use or lack thereof has no bearing at all.

Speaking of modern coining of words, sexual orientation is not terminology in the Scriptures at all. Sexual acts are. The only references that can be attributed to sexual have to do with marriage between a man and woman, Homosexual acts are extramarital according to the Scriptures. Those who persist in extramarital sex acts either heterosexual or homosexual will reap the eternal consequences thereof: separation from God because of sin.

[Cats4ever]

Devin, the word that people have used to describe homosexuality is very debatable because it was a word that Paul coined and was not used everywhere in history besides the bible. Arsenokoites is a compound word where Arseno means man and koites means bed, so if we were to take it literally we have manbed; some would say that he was trying to convey that meaning of having intercourse with a man; however the Greeks already had a word for that androkoitEs.  The issue is we really can define that word and assume Paul meant by the term.

Finally, some scholar have raised question about the relation between the Roman Centurion and his honored slave. We know that Roman went to Jesus for help, but what we do not know is the relationship between this man and the young boy. We need to understand how they view relationships during that time. It was not uncommon for older men to engage in intercourse with a slave, pupil, or a defeat enemy as a means of asserting his dominance. There is a good chance that the Roman Centurion engaged in intercourse with the young slave, so would Jesus confirm this relationship by healing the young boy.   

Devin, according to the bible, why did God destroy Sodom?